Is it at all possible for a man to truly have been the victim of abuse in his previous marriage, and that's what "made" him abusive in his current marriage or is this just always a load of bunk? He truly believes it, although I do realize cognitive distortion could also be at play. I'm just wondering if perhaps it's a possibility. It's my understanding (i.e. through reading the work of professionals such as Donald G. Dutton and his extensive research) that an abusive personality is developed in childhood and comes to fruitiion when the FIRST intimate relationship is established. A child reacts to abuse either by perpetually becoming the victim in adult relationships, or by becoming the abuser -- but not both (first victim, then abuser). Abuse is a personality type, not trait. Personality traits can change; types do not. At least this is my understanding. I would appreciate your thoughts.